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1 Test CCNA & ANSWER on Fri Jun 04, 2010 8:38 pm

Chapter 1: Computing Basics
Question 1: b
What is NIC?
a. A WAN adapter
b. A printed circuit board that provides network communication
c. A card uses only for Etherner networks
d. A standardized datalink layer address

Question 2: c
What must computers on a network have in common in order to directly communicate with each other?
a. Use the same operating system
b. Use the same hardware
c. Use the same protocol
d. Built by the same company

Question 3: a
What is LAN?
a. A network that connects workstations, terminals, and other devices a geographically limitted area.
b. A network that connects workstations, terminals, and other devices a large metropolitan area.
c. A network that serves users across a geographically large area and often uses transmission devices provided by a common carrier.
d. A network that covers a larger area than a MAN

Question 4: b
What do WAN do?
a. Allows printer and file sharing
b. Operate over a large geographic area
c. Operates over a metropolitan area
d. Provide host – to – host connectivity within a limmited area

Question 5: c
What type of numbering system is characterized by ones and zeros?
a. Base 4
b. Base 10
c. Binary
d. Hexadecimal

Question 6: c
Which numbering system is based on powers of 2?
a. Octal
b. Hexadecimal
c. Binary

Question 7: b
What is the decimal number 151 in binary?
a. 10100111
b. 10010111
c. 10101011
d. 10010011

Question 8: d
What is the binary number 11011010 in decimal?
a. 186
b. 202
c. 222
d. 218

Question 9: b
Bandwidth is described in _________?
a. Bytes per second
b. Bits per second
c. Megabits per milisecond
d. Centimeters

Question 10: c
What term is usec to describe the rated throughput capacity of a given network medium or protocol?
b. Ethernet
c. Bandwidth
d. Routing protocol

Chapter 2:
Q1: a
Which layer offers provisions for data expedition, class of service, and exception reporting?
a. Session
b. Presentation
c. Network
d. Datalink

Q2: b
Which of the following is the PDU for the transport layer?
a. Frame
b. Segment
c. Packet
d. Bits

Q3: c
Which layer of the OSI model provides connectivity and path selection between two end systems where routing occurs?
a. Physical Layer
b. Data Link Layer
c. Network Layer
d. Transport Layer

Q4: d
Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for reliable network communication between end nodes and provides mechanisms for the establishment, maintenance, and termination of virtual circuits, transport fault detection and recovery, and information flow control?
a. Physical Layer
b. Data Link Layer
c. Network Layer
d. Transport Layer

Q5: b
Which of the following best describes the function of the presentation layer?
a. Responsible for the reliable network communication between end nodes.
b. Concerned with data structures and negotiation data transfer syntax
c. Provides connectivity and path selection between two end systems
d. Manages data exchange between layer entities

Q6: a
What functions are the data link layer concerned with?
a. Physical addressing, network topology, and media access.
b. Manages data exchange between presentation layer entities
c. Synchronizes cooperating applications, and establishes agreement on procedures for error recovery and contronl of data integrity
d. Provides mechanisms for the establishment, maintenance, and termination of virtual circuits, transport fault detection, recovery, and information flow control.

Q7: d
Which of the following protocols uses UDP as its underlying protocol?
b. FTP

Q8: b
Which of the following statements regarding TCP/IP is true?
a. TCP/IP combines the OSI data link and session layer issues into its application layer
b. TCP/IP combines the OSI data link and physical layers into one layer
c. TCP/IP combines the OSI network and application layers into one network layer
d. TCP/IP combines the bottom four layers of the OSI model into one Internet layer

Q9: a
Packets are encapsulation in frames at which layer of the OSI model?
a. Data link
b. Network
c. Transport
d. Session

Q10: b
In the TCP/IP model which layer would deal with reliability, flow control, and error correction?
a. Application
b. Transport
c. Internet
d. Network Access

Chapter 3:
Q1: b
A NIC is considered an OSI layer _____ device
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four

Q2: a
A hub is an OSI layer ____ device
a. One
b. Two
c. Four
d. Six

Q3: c
Which of the following is true concerning a bridge and its forwarding decisions?
a. They operate at OSI layer 2 and use IP addresses to make decisions.
b. They operate at OSI layer 3 and use IP addresses to make decisions.
c. They operate at OSI layer 2 and use MAC addresses to make decisions.
d. They operate at OSI layer 3 and use MAC addresses to make decisions.

Q4: b
Which of the following is true concerning the function of a switch?
a. Increases the sizes of collision domains
b. Combines the connectivity of a hub with the traffic regulation of a bridge
c. Combines the connectivity of a hub with the traffic directing of a router
d. Performs Layer 4 path selection

Q5: c
What do routers connect?
a. Bridges and repeaters
b. Bridges and hubs
c. Two or more networks
d. Hubs and nodes

Q6: c
What does a router route?
a. Layer 1 bits
b. Layer 2 frames
c. Layer 3 packets
d. Layer 4 segments

Q7: a
What is the correct order of encapsulation?
a. Data, segment, Packet, Frame, Bits
b. Data, Frame, Packet, Segment, Bits
c. Data, Packet, Frame, Segment, Bits
d. Data, Bits, Packet, Frame, Segments

Q8: c
Which LAN topology connects all workstations to a central point, usually a hub or a switch?
a. Bus
b. Ring
c. Star
d. Hierarchical

Q9: d
When connecting four host computers in a LAN what is the minimum hardware needed to be used for file sharing capability?
a. Cloud
b. Switch
c. Router
d. Hub

Q 10: c
If 4 hosts are connected to a hub and then to the Internet, how many IP addresses are required for these 5 devices?
a. One
b. Two
c. Four
d. Five

Chapter 4:
Q1: b
What kind of power is supplied to the microchips on the motherboard of a computer?
a. AC
b. DC
c. RC
d. MC

Q2: a
Where is the safely ground connected for a computer?
a. Exposed metal parts
b. The monitor
c. The mouse
d. The network connection

Q3: d
Electrons flow in ___ loops called ____
a. Open, voltage
b. Closed, voltage
c. Open, circuits
d. Closed, circuits

Q4: a
A half duplex circuit means
a. Only one side can talk at a time
b. The signal strength is cut in half
c. The signal strength is doubled
d. Two hosts can set half their data

Q5: c
Attenuation means
a. Travel
b. Delay
c. A signal losing strength to its surroundings
d. All of the above

Q6: a
Which of the following is an external source of electrical impulses that can attack the quality of electrical signal on a cable?
a. EMI caused by electrical motors
b. RFI caused by electrical motors
c. Impedance caused by radio systems
d. EMI caused by lighting

Q7: d
What is the primary cause of crosstalk?
a. Cable wires that are too large in diameter
b. Too much noise in a cable’s data signal
c. Electrical motors and lighting
d. Electrical signals from other wires in a cable

Q8: b
Which of the following describes cancellation?
a. Wires in the same circuit cancel each other’s electrical current flow
b. Cancelation is a commonly used technique to protect the wire from undescrible interference
c. The magnetic fields from one cable run cancel magnetic fields of another cable run
d. External magnetic fields cancel the fields inside network cabling

Q9: c
What is it called when two bits from two different communicating computers are on a shared – medium at the same time?
a. Latency
b. Dispersion
c. Collision
d. Obstruction

Q10: a
____ means converting binary data into a form that can travel on a physical communications link
a. Encoding
b. Decoding
c. Encrypting
d. Decrypting

Chapter 5:
Q11: a
The network area within which data packets originate and collide is called a _____?
a. Collision domain
b. Network domain
c. Collision segment
d. Network segment shield

Q2: b
What happens to packets that are involved in a collision?
a. The packets return to the originator
b. The Packets are “destroyed” bit by bit
c. The Packets continue on to the target device with corrupt data
d. Another answer

Q3: c
What is another name for a rollover cable?
a. A patch cable
b. A cross-connect cable
c. A console cable
d. An inverted cable

Q4: c
Using repeaters ____ the collision domain
a. Reduces
b. Has no effect on
c. Extends
d. Another answer

Q5: c
What does the twisting of the wires do in a CAT-5 cable?
a. Make it thinner
b. Make it less expensive
c. Reduce noise problems
d. Allow 6 pairs to fit in the space of 4 pairs

Q6: b
Which best describes a collision in a Ethernet network?
a. The effects of having too many repeaters in a network
b. The result of two nodes transmitting at the same time
c. The effect when two nodes have the same MAC address.
d. The result of having non OSI compliant protocols on the network

Q7: a
How many collision domains exist in a network containing two hubs?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Five

Q8: c
Seperating collision domains with bridges, switches and routers is called ____
a. Switching domains
b. Extending domains
c. Segmentation
d. Fragmentation

Q 9: b
Which best describes bus topology?
a. All of its nodes connected directly to a central point (like a hub)
b. All of its nodes connected directly to one physical link
c. All nodes connected to each other (fully meshed)
d. All nodes connected to exactly 2 other nodes

Q 10: a
Which of the following best describes an extended star topology?
a. LAN topology where a central hub is connected by a vertical cabling to other hubs
b. LAN topology in which transmissions from network stations propagate the length of a single coaxial cable and are received by all other stations
c. LAN topology in which end points on a network are connected to a common central switch by point-to-point links
d. LAN topology where central points on a network are connected to a common central switch by linear links

Chapter 6:
Q1: a
Which LAN standard specifies an implementation of the physical layer and the MAC sub layer of the data link layer in Ethernet networks?
a. IEEE 802.3
b. IEEE 802.5.
c. EIA?TIA – 568B
d. EIA/TIA – 569

Q2: a
Which is not one of the recognized IEEE sublayers?
a. Data link Control
b. Media access control
c. Logical link control
d. Another answer

Q 3: a
Why did the IEEE create LLC?
a. To meet the need to have part of the datalink layer function be independent of existing technologies
b. To replace an older IBM protocol
c. To create a protocol that would not be control by the US government
d. To allow for data encryption before transmission

Q4: b
Convert the decimal number 2989 to Hex
a. FDD1
b. BAD
c. TED
d. CAD

Q5: a
Convert the hex number ABE into decimal
a. 2750
b. 5027
c. 2570
d. 7250

Q6: b
Convert the binary number 11100010 to hex
a. D2
b. E2
c. G2
d. H20

Q7: a
Which of the following statements best describes communication between two devices on a LAN?
a. “The source device encapsulates data in a frame with the MAC address of the destination device, transmits, everyone on the LAN sees it, but the devices with non-matching addresses otherwise ignore the frame”
b. “The source encapsulates the data and places a destination MAC address in the frame. It puts the frame on the LAN, where only the device with matching address can check the address field”
c. The source device encapsulates data in a frame with the MAC address of the Destination device, puts in on the LAN, and the device with the matching address removes the frame”
d. “Each device on the LAN receives the frame and passes it up to the computer, where software will decide whether to keep or discard the frame”

Q8: b
A frame is a ______
a. Layer 1 PDU
b. Layer 2 PDU
c. Layer 3 PDU
d. Layer 4 PDU

Q9: c
How does a computer on a LAN detect an error in a frame?
a. Send a copy of the frame back to the sender for verification
b. Check the destination address to verify that the frame was really intended for them
c. Compare a FCS in the frame to one that the computer calculates from the contents of the frame
d. Calculate a checksum from the data in the frame, and send it back to the source for verification

Q 10: c
Which is true of a deterministic MAC protocol?
a. It defines collisions and specifies what to do about them
b. It allows the hub to determine the number of users active at any one time
c. It allows hosts to “take their turn” for sending data
d. It allows the use of a “talking stick” by network administrators to control the media access of any users considered “troublemakers”

Chapter 7:
Q1: a
Which of the following describe Token-Ring?
a. Data transfer rates of 4 Mbps or 16 Mbps
b. Typically found with a linear bus topology
c. Can only be implemented with fiber
d. Uses collision detection for access method

Q 2: c
The data/command frame and token frame have which of the following fields in common?
a. Start delimiter, frame check sequence (FCS), and access control
b. Start delimiter, token control, and end delimiter
c. Start delimiter, access control, and end delimiter
d. Another answer

Q3: d
What is the difference between single-mode and multi-mode FDDI?
a. Single-mode allows one mode of light to propagate through the fiber (1)
b. Single-mode is capable of higher bandwidth than multi-mode (2)
c. Single-mode can run longer distance than multi-mode (3)
d. All (1), (2), (3)

Q4: d
One of the primary reasons FDDI is extremely reliable is because ____?
a. It uses CAT 3 cabling
b. It is a CSMA/CD network
c. It is a CSMA/CA network
d. Of it’s dual ring design

Q5: a
“If you hava to connect a FDDI between buildings, which mode of fiber would you use?”
a. Single-mode
b. Multi-mode
c. Intra-mode
d. Inter-mode

Q6: a
Which of the following is an accurate description of an Ethernet variety?
a. 10BASE – T uses and transmits at 10 Mbps
b. 10BASE - TX uses CAT5 and transmits at 100 Mbps
c. 10BASE – T uses CAT2 and transmits at 10 Mbps
d. 100BASE – FX is multi-mode fiber that transits at 10Mbps

Q7: c
The Ethernet version 2 header is ____ the header of an 802.3 frame
a. Much longer than
b. Much shorter than
c. The same length as
d. Completely different than

Q8: c
Which of the following is true regarding 10BASET signals?
a. They use no type encoding
b. They do not use any type of clocking signal when transmitting
c. Designed to send and receive signals over a segment that consists of 4 wires
d. Designed to send and receive signals over a segment that consists of 6 wires

Q9: b
“ A _____ diminishes the traffic experienced by devices on all connected segments, because only a certain percentage of traffic is forwarded”
a. Hub
b. Bridge
c. Repeater
d. NIC

Q10: b
Which of the following best describes a broadcast storm?
a. A frame that will be sent to all nodes on a network
b. When too many broadcasts are sent out over the network
c. “A section of a network that is bounded by bridges, routers, or switches”
d. The network areas within which frames that have collided are propagated

Chapter 8:
Q1: c
If Acme Inc. occupies the first three floors of a building and each floor is 1500 square meters, how many wiring closets should be installed according to EIA/TIA 569?
a. One
b. Three
c. Six
d. Nine

Q2: c
Which of the following is a specification for walls, floors, and ceilings of a wiring closet?
a. A maximum of 3.65m feet of wall space should be provided for terminations and related equipment for the POP
b. Rooms selected for wiring closets should have a dropped or false ceiling for easy access
c. Interior walls on which equipment is to be mounted should be covered with 1.9 cm plywood that is raised away from the underlying wall a minimum of 4.4 cm
d. Fire retardant paint should never be used to cover interior walls due to health and safety restrictions

Q3: b
Which of the following is a requirement for room and equipment access in a wiring closet?
a. The door should be at least 1.2 m wide and should swing open into the room ro ensure easy access to the room for workers and equipment
b. The wiring closet should lock from an outside access in such a way that exiting from the room is always possible.
c. Wiring hubs and patch panels must be wall-mountd using hinged wall brackets that are attached directly to the underlying wall surface
d. When a distribution rack is usesd to mount patch panels and wiring hubs, the minimum distance for the rack from the wall should be 15 cm

Question 1: d
What is the purpose of the safety ground in a computer?
A. connects the hot wire to the chassis
B. prevents metal parts from discharging hazardous voltage through the chassis
C. connects the neutral wire to the chassis
D. prevents metal parts from becoming energized with a hazardous voltage

Question 2: d
What best describes a wiring closet specification?
A. No horizontal cabling coming from work areas should be run under a raised floor.
B. All cable leaving the room to intermediate distribution facilities and computer and communications rooms located on other floors of a building should be via 8 cm (or smaller) conduits or sleeved cores.
C. Any wall or ceiling openings provided for conduits or sleeved cores must be sealed with smoke and flame retardant materials.
D. The room should be equipped with a single stage sprinkler system.

Question 3: a
When starting to design a network, what should be the first step in the process?
A. collecting information about the organization
B. gathering information about the network devices and media that will be used
C. documenting costs and developing a budget for implementation
D. identifying the resources and constraints of the organization

Question 4: b
What happens if you touch two objects with different potential
A. nothing
B. you complete the circuit and get a shock
C. the computer receives a power surge
D. the computer may lose data

Question 5: a
What kind of floor should the wiring room have?
A. tile or other finished surface
B. carpet
C. unfinished stone
D. electronics grade carpet

Question 6: b
How can the creation of potentially dangerous circuits between buildings be avoided?
A. A voltage regulator, that will shut off the network if the voltage gets too high, should be installed at both buildings.
B. Fiber-optic cable should be used as the backbone of the network.
C. Shielded twisted pair (STP) cable should be used as the backbone of the network.
D. New ground wires should be installed so that the energy potentials between the buildings will be the same.

Question 7: d
What problem could be caused by a faulty ground wire connection at an outlet that is used by networking equipment?
A. Nothing, because IEEE standards separate LAN networking media from power connections.
B. The networking media could allow the network to run at higher speeds.
C. The networking media would ground the signal preventing it from operating normally.
D. There could be potentially fatal voltages between the LAN's UTP cabling and the chassis of a networking device.

Question 8: b
Why should fluorescent light fixtures be avoided in wiring closets?
A. They provide false color lighting which can lead to mistakes in making connections.
B. They generate outside interference.
C. They can degrade some plastic materials used in network equipment.
D. There often is insufficient room in a wiring closet to change out the fluorescent bulbs easily and safely.

Question 9: a
In what types of situations will a safety ground connection not be sufficient?
A. when the earth ground is attached to multiple floors of a building
B. when the earth grounds between two parts of a network are identical
C. when the power plant sends an irregular surge of power that defeats the earth ground
D. when ground wires in separate locations have slightly different potential

Question 10: b
How can UTP backbone cabling facilitate entry of lightning into a building?
A. The insulation in the wire acts as a lightning rod and attracts the strike.
B. The copper provides a pathway for lightning to enter a building.
C. It won't facilitate lightning strikes if the wire is fused at both ends.
D. It does not facilitate lightning strikes unless the copper has been damaged.

Question 11: b
What best describes the problems caused by electrostatic discharge (ESD)?
A. It erases power supplies, hard drives, and RAM.
B. It destroys semiconductors and data.
C. It shoots alternating current through a computer.
D. It overwrites the BIOS chip.

Question 12:
If Acme Inc. occupies the first three floors of a building and each floor is 1500 square meters, how many wiring closets should be installed according to EIA/TIA 569?
A. one
B. three
C. six
D. nine

Question 13: c
What is the first step in locating a wiring closet for a network?
A. Identify the number of computers that will be part of the network.
B. Identify the number of printers and file servers that will be part of the network.
C. Identify on a floor plan, all devices that will be connected to the network.
D. Identify the topological requirements of devices that will be in the network.

Question 14:
What kind of power disturbances can be caused by strikes?
A. oscillations
B. sags
C. surges
D. brownouts

Question 15: a
What network device is used in an extended star topology when the catchment area of one wiring closet is not enough?
A. repeater
B. backoff
C. terminator
D. suppressor

Question 16: a
What is a common cause of oscillation often called harmonics?
A. excessively long electrical wiring runs
B. nearby lightning strikes
C. a power line that falls below 80% of the normal voltage
D. power company switching operations

Question 17: a
Why are common mode problems a hazard to you or your computer?
A. They go directly to the computer chassis.
B. They go directly to the computer's CPU.
C. They short wires to the power supply.
D. They fuse computer components.

Question 18: c
Where should the main distribution facility (MDF) be located in a
multi-story building using an extended star topology?
A. next to the POP
B. on the first floor
C. on one of the middle floors
D. in the basement

Question 19: d
What best describes the difference between alternating and direct current?
A. DC helps computers to work more efficiently, whereas AC can cause noise.
B. AC flows at a constant value, whereas DC rises and falls.
C. DC shifts ions from pole to pole, whereas AC ions run in one direction.
D. DC flows at a constant value, whereas AC rises and falls.

Question 20: b
How does AC line noise create problems?
A. by overflowing the logic gates
B. by adding unwanted voltage to the desired signals
C. by hindering the CPU in detecting signal waves
D. by intensifying the leading and trailing edges on signals

Question 21: a
What is the "one-hand rule?"
A. Only touch electrical devices with one hand at a time to prevent electricity from flowing through the body.
B. When setting up the network only use one bare hand--always wear a glove on at least one hand.
C. When using tools that are not insulated only use one hand, hold onto a ground with the other hand.
D. There is no such rule.

Question 22: c
Which type of networking media is now installed most often for backbone cabling?
A. 100 ohm unshielded twisted pair cable
B. 150 ohm shielded twisted pair cable
C. 62.5/125 micron fiber-optic cable
D. 50 ohm coaxial cable

Chapter 9

Question 1: a
Which of the following is a source that can produce interference on UTP
A. fluorescent lights
B. fiber-optic cabling
C. bridges
D. coaxial cabling

Question 2: b
Why are split pairs a problem for network installations?
A. The wires are unshielded and easily lose synchronicity.
B. The wires are part of different circuits so signals are not protected and cross-talk occurs.
C. The wires are part of different circuits and easily shorted out by power spikes.
D. It is difficult to detect split pairs which requires performing a wire map.

Question 3: c
When should cable not be routed in an existing raceway?
A. if the raceway distance exceeds 100 feet
B. if the raceway material is partially metallic
C. if it already contains a power cable
D. if it contains a telephone line

Question 4: d
What is the central junction for the network cable?
B. server
C. center point
D. wiring closet

Question 5: a
What should be used to mount cable to a wall?
A. tie wraps
B. electrical tape
C. staples
D. paperclips

Question 6: a
If you have one wiring closet and you want to add more, what name is given
to additional wiring closets?
C. Extended Stars

Question 7: c
All the items below are personal safety precautions before you install
cable except :
A. Wear long sleeves.
B. Wear long pants.
C. Wear baggy clothes.
D. Check for power cables.

Question 8: c
What tool would you use to attach CAT5 cable to a patch panel?
A. 110 patch tool
B. cable terminator
C. punch tool
D. patch terminator

Question 9: a
What is one advantage of using distribution racks for mounting patch
A. allows easy access to both the front and back of the equipment
B. provides neutral ground
C. inexpensive compared to brackets
D. requires minimal wall space

Question 10: a
Why is the wiring sequence critical when RJ-45 jacks are used at the
telecommunications outlet in a horizontal cabling scheme?
A. For the network to function properly.
B. Improper wiring sequence will short out the connection.
C. You could get a nasty electrical shock.
D. The collision rate is adversely affected.

Question 11: c
What is the most important thing to do before you work in walls, ceilings
or attics?
A. Label the faceplate.
B. Measure out the cable.
C. Turn off power to the area.
D. Install the patch panel.

Question 12: a
What kind of jack must be used for making a connection to a Category 5
unshielded twisted pair cable in a horizontal cabling scheme?
A. RJ-45
C. UTP 55
D. EIA 45

Question 13: a
Why shouldn't you install a jack in the bottom five centimeters of a wooden baseboard?
A. The bottom plate of the wall will prevent you from pushing the box into the baseboard.
B. Most floors have metal supports that produce electromagnetic interference when close to the jack.
C. Dust and dirt accumulate under it that can then get into the connection and affect network performance.
D. It's so close to the floor, there isn't enough space for most people to work and manipulate the wires.

Question 14: a
Which of the following describes a cable tester measurement of signal attenuation?
A. It measures the reduction in power of a signal received from a signal injector.
B. It measures the increase in power of a signal received from a signal injector.
C. The signal injector attaches to the near end of the cable.
D. The frequency to be used for testing is specified in EIA/TIA 568A.

Question 15: d
How is an RJ-45 jack surface mounted?
A. with a punch tool
B. with Velcro
C. flush with the surface
D. adhesive backed or screw box

Question 16: d
What is the first thing you should do if near-end crosstalk is detected?
A. Redo all connections at the patch panel.
B. Isolate which connection is the cause by running a TDR test.
C. Redo all connections at the cross connects.
D. Visually check the horizontal cabling.

Question 17: c
Which best describes a patch panel's function?
A. It serves as a temporary fix to network problems.
B. It acts as a router for temporary networks connecting the various devices often found at conventions and shows.
C. It acts as a switchboard where horizontal cabling from workstations can be connected to other devices to form a LAN.
D. It allows the network administrator to test the entire network cabling from a single location.

Question 18: b
How many pins are on each of the ports of a patch panel?
A. 4 pins
B. 8 pins
C. 11 pins
D. 45 pins

Question 19: c
What should be done when preparing to run cable?
A. Cut the cable before pulling it.
B. Unroll it before pulling it through the ceiling.
C. Label the boxes and cable.
D. Take the cable out of the boxes.

Question 20: c
What kind of a cable must you use when laying cable through spaces where
air is circulated?
A. shielded
B. double coated
C. fire rated
D. unshielded

Question 21: c
How does a cable tester (a TDR) measure distance?
A. The cable tester identifies signal degradation, indicating the cable is longer than the acceptable maximum length.
B. It determines the time a signal takes to be reflected back from closed-ended cable.
C. It times the signal sent towards and reflected back from the end of an open-ended cable.
D. It measures the ability of other devices on the network to receive and send signals through the cable.

Question 22: b
What type of raceway should be used if it will be visible in the room?
A. channel guide
B. decorative
C. ladder rack
D. gutter

Question 23: c
Why is establishing a baseline performance level for a network important?
A. for fulfilling one of the requirements necessary for you to get your network certification
B. for providing your client with proof of a successful installation
C. for future periodic testing of the network and diagnostics
D. for obtaining a network registration and identification number from TIA/EIA and IEEE

Question 24: a
What is a rough diagram that shows where the cable runs are located called?
A. cut sheet
B. sketch
C. cable plan
D. cabling route

Question 25: b
When running cable from the wiring closet to wall jacks, where is the
cable itself labeled?
A. at each tie
B. at each end
C. at the jack end
D. at the panel end

Chapter 10

Question 1: b
What characteristic must hosts on a network possess in order to
communicate directly ?
A. same vendor code
B. same network ID
C. same MAC address
D. separate subnets

Question 2: a
Which of the following describes the effect of subnetting on the amount of
broadcast traffic?
A. decreases it, because broadcasts are not forwarded outside a subnet
B. decreases it, because it will take less time for a host to get broadcasts from the routers.
C. increases it, because the packets must be forwarded to all subnets
D. increases it, because router's duplicate broadcasts

Question 3: c
Which of the following correctly describes an ISP?
A. Internal Service Protection
B. Internal Service Provider
C. Internet Service Provider
D. Internet Service Protection

Question 4: c
Which of the following is an example of a Class C broadcast address?

Question 5: a
What is decimal number 164 in binary?
A. 10100100
B. 10010010
C. 11000100
D. 10101010

Question 6: c
Which of the following is the approximate number of hosts supported in a
Class B unsubnetted network?
A. 254
B. 2024
C. 65 thousand
D. 16 million

Question 7: d
Which of the following describes the relationship between path
determination and the routing of packets?
A. performed only by switches
B. performed only by different devices
C. they are different processes
D. they are the same process

Question 8:
Which OSI layer adds an IP header?
A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
@C. Layer 3
D. Layer 4

Question 9: a
Which type of addressing scheme is formed by MAC addresses?
A. flat
B. circular
C. hierarchical
D. elliptical

Question 10: c
Which address(es) appear in an IP packet's header?
A. source address
B. destination address
C. source and destination addresses
D. there are no addresses in the IP packet header.

Question 11: a
Which of the following is a benefit of network segmentation?
A. reduced congestion
B. reduced equipment requirements
C. creation of more IP addresses
D. creation of more MAC addresses

Question 12: a
Which of the following would be the decimal value of the binary IP address

Question 13: d
Which octet(s) are assigned locally in a class B address?
A. The first octet is assigned locally.
B. The second octet is assigned locally.
C. The first and second octets are assigned locally.
D. The third and fourth octets are assigned locally.

Question 14: c
What is the maximum number of bits that can be borrowed from the host
portion of a Class C network to create subnets?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

Question 15: c
What must be used to allow the rest of the Internet to see our
organization as a single network, but allow routing inside our network?
A. partitions
B. autonomous systems
C. subnets
D. divisions

Question 16: a
Which class of network addresses allows the borrowing of 15 bits to create
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. No class of network allows the borrowing of 15 bits.

Question 17: d
Which part of a network layer address does the router use during path
A. the host address
B. the router address
C. the server address
D. the network address

Question 18: a
Which of the following represents the use of binary ones in a subnet mask?
A. host bits
B. subnet bits
C. network bits
D. subnet and network bits

Question 19: c
How large is the network/subnet portion of a Class B license having a
subnet mask of
A. 18 bits
B. 19 bits
C. 20 bits
D. That is an invalid mask for a Class B network.

Question 20: d
How many bits are in an IP address?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32

Question 21: b
How many total subnets can be created if four bits are borrowed from the
host field?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 32
D. 64

Question 22: a
What is specified by the network number in an IP address?
A. the network to which the host belongs
B. the physical identity of the computer on the network
C. the node of the subnetwork which is being addressed
D. the broadcast identity of subnetwork

Question 23: d
Which of the following assists devices on the same network in determining
a packet's final destination?
A. source IP address
B. vendor number
C. host protocol
D. host ID

Question 24: b
Which of the following would be the largest possible number expressed by
an 8 bit binary number?
A. 0
B. 11111111
C. 10101011
D. 10101010

Question 25: c
Which of the following best describes the address in an
unsubnetted environment?
A. Class A broadcast address
B. Class B host address
C. Class B broadcast address
D. Class C host address

Chapter 11

Question 1: a
The IP address for a router interface should be part of what?
A. the network attached to the interface
B. any network attached to the router
C. it does not matter
D. router interfaces never have IP addresses

Question 2: d
When sending data to a host on a different network, the source host
encapsulates data so that it contains what destination address in the IP
A. IP address of the router
B. MAC address of the router
C. MAC address of the destination device
D. IP address of the destination host

Question 3: d
What is the correct term for when routes are learned automatically?
A. static routing
B. automatic routing
C. enhanced routing
D. dynamic routing

Question 4: b
What do bridges and switches use to make data forwarding decisions?
A. logical addresses
B. physical addresses
C. network addresses
D. IP addresses

Question 5: a
Which is an example of a Layer 3 internetworking device that passes data
packets between networks?
A. router
B. hub
C. bridge
D. switch

Question 6: a
Which type of routing protocol is RIP?
A. distance vector
B. link state
C. hybrid
D. spanning tree

Question 7: b
Router ARP tables hold information from which of the following?
A. all Ethernet LANs
B. all networks connected to them
C. all networks in the Internet
D. MAC addresses only

Question 8: b
What is the most common protocol used to transfer routing information
between routers located on the same network?

Question 9: b
In a connection-oriented system, what happens before any user data is
A. a connection is established with the recipient's local router
B. a connection is established between the sender and receiver
C. a connection is established with the sender's local router
D. the destination is not contacted before any actual data is sent

Question 10: c
What happens if a data packet reaches a router that is destined for a
network with which that router is not directly connected?
A. The router forwards the packet to all other routers.
B. The router returns the packet to the source device with no
C. The router forwards the packet to another router that most likely
contains information about the destination.
D. The router returns the packet to the source device with the
explanation that the destination was unreachable.

Question 11: c
Which of the following contains a unique network number that is used in
A. MAC address
B. physical address
C. IP address
D. NIC card

Question 12: a
Which protocol is used to dynamically assign IP addresses?
C. proxy ARP

Question 13: c
Connection-oriented network processes are often referred to as what?
A. packet switched
B. segment switched
C. circuit switched
D. network switched

Question 14: d
Which describes the changes made to a packet's IP destination address, as
that packet is passed from router to router on it's way to the destination
A. The destination IP address changes each hop, to be the address of
the next router.
B. The destination IP address changes anytime a router is sending the
packet over a WAN.
C. The destination IP address will always be the address of the first
D. The destination IP address never changes.

Question 15: c
Which protocol can find the MAC address of a computer given its IP
D. Proxy RARP

Question 16: a
Why is a static route the preferred method for reaching stub networks?
A. static routing requires less overhead
B. static routing requires more overhead on the network
C. this allows routers to adjust to changes in the network
D. the routes are learned automatically

Question 17: a
What is described when a router acts as a default gateway, allowing a
device on one subnet to find the MAC address of a host on another subnet?
A. proxy ARP
B. proxy RARP
D. subnetting

Question 18: b
Which is an example of a routed protocol?

Question 19: d
IP relies upon which OSI layer protocol to determine whether packets have
been lost and request retransmission?
A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport

Question 20: c
What do routers use to exchange routing tables and share route
A. routed protocols
B. transport protocols
C. routing protocols
D. UDP protocols

Question 21: b
Which type of routing allows routers to adjust to changing network
A. static
B. dynamic
C. automatic
D. stub

Question 22: d
Which of the following is an example of an IGP (Interior Gateway

Question 23: a
In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?
A. The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.
B. The destination is contacted before a packet is sent.
C. A connectionless connection is established with the recipient
before a packet is sent.
D. A non-connection is established between the sender and recipient
before a packet is sent.

Question 24: a
Which is a network layer protocol that can be routed?

Question 25: b
What are the two proprietary routing protocols developed by Cisco?
C. IPX and SPX
D. TCP and IP

Question 26: b
When configuring a host computer, which of the following describes the
router interface that connects to the same network segment?
A. default interface
B. default gateway
C. default port
D. default subnet

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